Abnormal Psychology Assignment

Match number with letter. Need this in under 2hrs. If not possible please let me know so that I can cancel the order. I just need one page with the numbers and letter of the correct answer next to it. Nothing fancy

Textbook Requirements
Comer, R.J. (2016). Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology (8th ed). New York: Worth. ISBN#: 1-4641-7697-3

Question 1

If you are similar to most other people, which of the following are you MOST likely to do to relieve stress?

A.
use a cell phone to call, text, etc.

B.
exercise

C.
drink alcoholic

D.
watch TV, read, or listen to music

.

2 points

Question 2

Obesity and lack of exercise have been linked MOST closely to which of the following psychophysiological disorders?

A.
ulcers

B.
muscle contraction headaches

C.
asthma

D.
coronary heart disease

.

2 points

Question 3

Munchausen syndrome is a:

A.
psychophysical disorder.

B.
somatoform disorder.

C.
conversion disorder.

D.
factitious disorder.

.

2 points

Question 4

Which of the following would you NOT find on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale?

A.
death of spouse

B.
pregnancy

C.
exercise

D.
jail term

.

2 points

Question 5

In the latter half of the nineteenth century, a person who today is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder would MOST likely have been diagnosed with:

A.
pseudopsychological syndrome.

B.
Freudian syndrome.

C.
Briquet\’s syndrome.

D.
referenced pain syndrome.

.

2 points

Question 6

Conversion disorders MOST often appear between:

A.
young adulthood and middle adulthood.

B.
middle adulthood and old age.

C.
late childhood and young adulthood.

D.
childhood and adolescence.

.

2 points

Question 7

Of the following, who is MOST at risk for misinterpreting a cultural response as pathology?

A.
an ethnic-minority client

B.
an immigrant client

C.
a dominant-culture assessor

D.
an ethnic-minority assessor

.

2 points

Question 8

A present-day clinician uses terms like “dementia” and “mental retardation” for diagnostic categories. That clinician is using terms:

A.
used in the DSM-5 but not used in previous forms of the DSM.

B.
not used in the DSM-5 but used in previous forms of the DSM.

C.
not used in either the DSM-5 or in previous forms of the DSM.

D.
common to both the DSM-5 and previous forms of the DSM.

.

2 points

Question 9

Which category of clinical tests tends to have the BEST standardization, reliability, and validity?

A.
intelligence tests

B.
response inventories

C.
projective tests

D.
personality inventories

.

2 points

Question 10

The MAIN focus of a clinical practitioner when faced with a new client is to gather what type of information?

A.
idiographic

B.
nomothetic

C.
dispassionate

D.
diagnostic

.

2 points

Question 11

A client is hooked up to an apparatus that measures galvanic skin response and blood pressure, after which the client verbally answers a series of questions. The type of clinical test being used is:

A.
projective.

B.
psychophysiological.

C.
affective response inventory.

D.
neuropsychological.

.

2 points

Question 12

A therapist\’s preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is known as:

A.
self-monitoring.

B.
battery observation.

C.
naturalistic observation.

D.
structured observation.

.

2 points

Question 13

If a clinician wanted to know more detailed information about a person\’s functioning in a specific area, the clinician would use:

A.
a validity assessment.

B.
a response inventory.

C.
standardization.

D.
a measure of reliability.

.

2 points

Question 14

The currently accepted view of eating disorders is that its cause is:

A.
cognitive.

B.
behavioral.

C.
biological.

D.
multidimensional.

.

2 points

Question 15

Serotonin levels are low in those with eating disorders and in those with obsessive-compulsive disorder and depression. This means that:

A.
all the disorders cause serotonin to decrease.

B.
low serotonin causes all three disorders.

C.
there is a relationship, but no evidence of causation.

D.
if we raise serotonin levels, we will cure eating disorders.

.

2 points

Question 16

Changes in body image among African American women and among women in non-Westernized cultures support the idea that ______ has/have a strong influence on body image.

A.
exposure to white U.S. culture

B.
the impact of gender

C.
genetic similarities

D.
cognitive distortions

.

2 points

Question 17

The disorder that is characterized by eating binges followed by forced vomiting is called:

A.
anorexia nervosa.

B.
bulimia nervosa.

C.
obsession.

D.
obesity.

.

2 points

Question 18

Support for the idea that mood disorders set the stage for eating disorders comes from evidence that shows:

A.
that eating disorders have been successfully treated using antianxiety medication.

B.
that people with eating disorders are not more likely themselves to be diagnosed with depression.

C.
that close relatives of people with eating disorders have a high rate of mood disorders.

D.
high levels of serotonin in the brain.

.

2 points

Question 19

A young woman who is very concerned about being attractive to others, is more sexually experienced, and has relatively few obsessive qualities is:

A.
more likely to be experiencing anorexia than bulimia.

B.
less likely to be experiencing bulimia or anorexia.

C.
equally likely to be experiencing bulimia or anorexia.

D.
more likely to be experiencing bulimia than anorexia.

.

2 points

Question 20

Increasing pleasant activities is MOST likely to be a part of a(n) ______ therapy program.

A.
behavioral

B.
interpersonal

C.
psychoanalytic

D.
cognitive

.

2 points

Question 21

If the focus of your therapist is primarily on how communication and problem-solving difficulties with your partner are contributing to your depression, your therapist is MOST likely using:

A.
couple therapy.

B.
cognitive-behavioral therapy.

C.
interpersonal therapy.

D.
cognitive therapy.

.

2 points

Question 22

Of the following, the MOST accurate description of the symptoms of mania would be that they:

A.
very seldom include physical activity, and usually include only mental activity.

B.
are highly correlated with positive life events.

C.
don\’t include a sense of the impact of one\’s actions on others.

D.
are the same as those of depression (e.g., sadness), but accompanied by aggressiveness.

.

2 points

Question 23

Current research regarding the effectiveness of behavioral therapy for depression is MOST consistent with which of the following statements?

A.
Increasing one\’s positive activities is more effective than just keeping track of them.

B.
Therapy is most effective when techniques are used one at a time, in isolation.

C.
Using a combination of behavioral techniques works better than using just one.

D.
Behavior therapists usually reject the addition of cognitive techniques into their treatment.

.

2 points

Question 24

A politician decides to use tears to try to manipulate public opinion, by crying at a news conference. Research shows that the politician\’s use of tears will be MOST effective if the politician is a

A.
woman, and she cries a little.

B.
man, and he cries a little.

C.
woman, and she cries a lot.

D.
man, and he cries a lot.

.

2 points

Question 25

A person taking antidepressant medication is starting to gain weight, and reports decreasing interest in sexual activity. These changes are MOST common among people taking what kind of antidepressant medication?

A.
MAO inhibitors

B.
tricyclics

C.
vagus nerve stimulators

D.
second-generation antidepressants

.

2 points

Question 26

Which of the following statements regarding the use of drug therapy to slow down the progression of Alzheimer\’s disease is MOST accurate?

A.
Drug therapy slows down the disease in patients treated early in the course of a milder form of the disease.

B.
Drug therapy slows down the disease in no one; drug therapy doesn\’t work for Alzheimer\’s disease.

C.
Drug therapy slows down the disease only in patients with severe forms of the disease.

D.
Drug therapy slows down the disease in all patients..

.

2 points

Question 27

Sources of discrimination in the mental health care of the elderly include:

A.
need for care in a skilled facility.

B.
language barriers that interfere with medical and mental health care.

C.
lack of high-quality wellness programs.

D.
combination of substance abuse and depression.

.

2 points

Question 28

A partially supervised apartment, a senior housing complex for mildly impaired elderly people, and a nursing home with around-the-clock care, are all examples of:

A.
double jeopardy facilities.

B.
wellness programs.

C.
health-maintenance facilities.

D.
long-term care.

.

2 points

Question 29

Alzheimer\’s is a brain ______, while stroke is a brain ______.

A.
disease; injury

B.
poisoning; infection

C.
injury; disease

D.
infection; disease

.

2 points

Question 30

The percentage of the elderly population living in nursing homes at any given time is about:

A.
15 percent.

B.
35 percent.

C.
5 percent.

D.
25 percent.

.

2 points

Question 31

About what percent of those with Alzheimer\’s disease are cared for by their relatives?

A.
90 percent

B.
30 percent

C.
70 percent

D.
50 percent

.

2 points

Question 32

According to Freud, another term for the symbolic meaning of dreams is:

A.
negative transference.

B.
manifest content.

C.
positive transference.

D.
latent content.

.

2 points

Question 33

If you believe that you can master and perform needed behaviors whenever necessary, Bandura would say that you had a positive sense of:

A.
self-efficacy.

B.
classical conditioning.

C.
modeling.

D.
overgeneralization.

.

2 points

Question 34

“Thoughts, as well as overt actions, are acquired and modified by various forms of conditioning.” The orientation of the author of this quote MOST likely would be:

A.
self-efficacious.

B.
humanistic-existential.

C.
psychodynamic-gestalt.

D.
cognitive-behavioral.

.

2 points

Question 35

An assumption of determinism is that abnormal behaviors:

A.
have physiological bases.

B.
are not accidental.

C.
are learned.

D.
are due to unconscious conflicts.

.

2 points

Question 36

Colin is asked to “free associate” about his mother\’s new husband and he responds by changing the subject. A psychodynamic therapist would consider this an example of:

A.
catharsis.

B.
transference.

C.
resistance.

D.
countertransference.

.

2 points

Question 37

Jamal observed his parents\’ generous behavior throughout his childhood. As a result, he developed a positive and generous attitude toward the world. According to the behavioral model, Jamal has acquired his lifestyle through the process of:

A.
classical conditioning.

B.
self-actualization.

C.
operant conditioning.

D.
modeling.

.

2 points

Question 38

The term for the form of psychotherapy pioneered by Carl Rogers is:

A.
gestalt.

B.
insight.

C.
existential.

D.
client-centered.

.

2 points

Question 39

Which of the following occupations is MOST similar to what Masters and Johnson identified as the spectator role in sexual behavior?

A.
actor

B.
airline pilot

C.
priest

D.
judge

.

2 points

Question 40

What do androphilia and autogynephilia have in common?

A.
They are transvestic disorders.

B.
Those diagnosed cross-dress for the purpose of becoming sexually aroused.

C.
Those diagnosed experience gender dysphoria beginning early in life.

D.
Those diagnosed are genetically male.

.

2 points

Question 41

A man\’s sexual partner repeatedly stimulates him to erection, then allows the erection to subside without the man experiencing an ejaculation. The sexual technique is called the:

A.
tease technique.

B.
phase technique.

C.
sneeze technique.

D.
squeeze technique.

.

2 points

Question 42

The view that modern researchers hold about clitoral orgasms is that they are:

A.
superior to vaginal orgasms in sexual gratification.

B.
the result of fixation on neurotic infantile needs.

C.
as healthy as vaginal orgasms.

D.
felt only by sexually dysfunctional women.

.

2 points

Question 43

What is another name for genital pain during sexual activity?

A.
dyspareunia

B.
postmature ejaculation

C.
male orgasmic disorder

D.
premature ejaculation

.

2 points

Question 44

In treating erectile disorder, the “tease” technique involves:

A.
stimulation of the penis, but before ejaculation can occur, the woman squeezes the penis below the head to prevent ejaculation.

B.
stimulating the penis, but stimulation is stopped once erection occurs.

C.
stimulating the penis until ejaculation, followed by a pause and then another period of stimulation.

D.
three or more episodes of intercourse each night for a month.

.

2 points

Question 45

A person who recently injected cocaine reports reaching the peak of euphoria. Usually, that euphoria:

A.
follows the peak of dopamine-using neuron activity by at least 10 minutes.

B.
follows the peak of dopamine-using neuron activity by about 5 minutes.

C.
precedes the peak of dopamine-using neuron activity by about 5 minutes.

D.
occurs at about the same time as the peak of dopamine-using neuron activity.

.

2 points

Question 46

An acquaintance of yours uses Ecstasy and says, “Wow! I was totally energized and tripping. It was like LSD and meth combined.” Your acquaintance\’s experience with Ecstasy was:

A.
uncommon; the drug has stimulant but not hallucinogenic properties.

B.
uncommon; the drug has hallucinogenic, but not stimulant properties.

C.
very unusual; the drug usually acts as a central nervous system depressant.

D.
common; the drug has both stimulant and hallucinogenic properties.

.

2 points

Question 47

Kelly is a long-time serious drinker. In the last year, she has started having frequent memory lapses. When this happens, she makes up wild stories to help her fill in what she does not remember. This symptom is called:

A.
Wernicke\’s encephalopathy.

B.
confabulation.

C.
Korsakoff\’s syndrome.

D.
alcohol-induced psychotic disorder.

.

2 points

Question 48

According to the chart in your textbook, teenagers say that the drug easiest for them to obtain is:

A.
marijuana.

B.
alcohol.

C.
amphetamines.

D.
nicotine (cigarettes).

.

2 points

Question 49

DSM-5 includes gambling disorder as an addictive disorder, along with substance abuse disorders. This inclusion is:

A.
unusual; gambling disorder and computer gaming disorder both were added as non-substance disorders in the category.

B.
unusual; gambling disorder joins computer gaming disorder as the second disorder in the category that doesn\’t involve a substance.

C.
unique; gambling disorder is the only disorder in the category that doesn\’t involve a substance.

D.
common; there presently are seven other disorders in the category that don\’t involve a substance.

.

2 points

Question 50

One study shows that in “substance-free” dorms, the percent of students who are binge drinkers is:

A.
about one-quarter the percent of binge-drinking students in fraternity or sorority houses.

B.
about one-half the percent of binge-drinking students in fraternity or sorority houses.

C.
less than one-tenth the percent of binge-drinking students in fraternity or sorority houses.

D.
equal to the percent of binge-drinking students in fraternity or sorority houses.

.

2 points

Question 51

A person with a phobia is taught to imagine the feared items as part of desensitization training. This is an example of the:

A.
covert technique.

B.
in vivo technique.

C.
fear hierarchical flooding technique.

D.
modeling technique.

.

2 points

Question 52

Which of the following is true about drug and cognitive treatments for panic disorder?

A.
Drug treatments are significantly more effective, especially early in the disorder.

B.
Neither drug treatments nor cognitive treatments show much promise.

C.
Cognitive treatment is more effective over time, even if the person continues to take medication.

D.
Both drug treatments and cognitive treatments are effective.

.

2 points

Question 53

A phobic person is taken to a snake-handling convention in order to actually confront snakes as part of desensitization training. This is an example of the:

A.
covert technique.

B.
modeling technique.

C.
fear hierarchical technique.

D.
in vivo technique.

.

2 points

Question 54

People with one anxiety disorder are most likely to:

A.
experience hallucinations.

B.
experience another nonanxiety disorder.

C.
experience only that one anxiety disorder.

D.
experience another anxiety disorder, too.

.

2 points

Question 55

A neurologist who was working with a person with obsessive-compulsive disorder would be suspicious of abnormality in what region of the brain?

A.
cerebral cortex

B.
caudate nuclei

C.
temporal lobe

D.
hypothalamus

.

2 points

Question 56

Which theoretical position explains the origin of phobias as due to classical conditioning?

A.
behavioral

B.
sociocultural

C.
biological

D.
psychodynamic

.

2 points

Question 57

A person experiencing a panic disorder is MOST likely also to have which of the following:

A.
fear of other people.

B.
fear of public places.

C.
fear of driving.

D.
fear of enclosed spaces.

.

2 points

Question 58

Current research suggests that those who experience severe stress:

A.
are less anxious than the average person before the trauma.

B.
have abnormal levels of norepinephrine and cortisol following the trauma.

C.
were not directly exposed to the trauma, but experienced it second-hand.

D.
were likely to be wealthy as children.

.

2 points

Question 59

Of the following disorders, the one for which an individual would LEAST likely need therapy to avoid a recurrence and to recover lost memories is:

A.
depersonalization disorder.

B.
conversion disorder.

C.
dissociative amnesia.

D.
dissociative fugue.

.

2 points

Question 60

In addition to failing to explain why some people who experience severe trauma do not develop dissociative disorders, behavioral theorists also have the MOST difficulty explaining how:

A.
temporary escape from painful memories grows into a complex disorder.

B.
reinforcement is related to the onset of the disorder.

C.
operant conditioning is related to the disorder.

D.
therapists could iatrogenically cause the disorder.

.

2 points

Question 61

What do we know about the inheritance of PTSD?

A.
The tendency to develop PTSD is a characteristics located on the Y chromosome.

B.
Both men and women appear to be able to pass on their tendency to develop PTSD.

C.
The tendency to develop PTSD cannot be passed on from one generation to the next.

D.
Women who have high cortisol levels tend to have children with high cortisol levels.

.

2 points

Question 62

Combat veterans are MOST likely to report symptoms of:

A.
selective amnesia.

B.
localized amnesia.

C.
generalized amnesia.

D.
continuous amnesia.

.

2 points

Question 63

I am generally a calm, relaxed person. If you are generally a tense, excitable person, we differ in:

A.
state anxiety.

B.
situation anxiety.

C.
trait anxiety.

D.
content anxiety.

.

2 points

Question 64

“Let\’s try to figure out where clients fall on several key personality traits, rather than using a dichotomous classification system.” Someone saying this would MOST likely favor which approach to classifying personality disorders?

A.
the traditional DSM-5 approach

B.
a cognitive-behavioral approach

C.
a psychodynamic approach

D.
a dimensional approach

.

2 points

Question 65

Comorbidity means that:

A.
one disorder may develop into another.

B.
the appearance of one disorder implies the disappearance of the one that preceded it.

C.
two disorders may occur together in an individual.

D.
one disorder automatically implies the other.

.

2 points

Question 66

Cognitive theorists believe that because of their difficulty scanning the environment, perceiving accurately, and picking up emotional cues, those with schizoid personalities are slow to develop:

A.
thinking disorders.

B.
secondary sex characteristics.

C.
allergies and other medical problems.

D.
language and motor skills.

.

2 points

Question 67

One especially good reason to use a form of group therapy in the treatment of dependent personality disorder is that:

A.
the therapist can still control the group, because the participants are so dependent.

B.
the group members will see how maladaptive the dependent behavior is when they observe it in the other group members.

C.
the group members can model appropriate behaviors and expression of feelings to one another.

D.
All of these alternatives are good reasons to use group therapy with those with dependent personality disorder.

.

2 points

Question 68

The TV show Monk features a detective who is very seldom happy, has few good friends, insists on a very rigid order and way in which he must do things, and frequently has difficulty making up his mind about what to do. If he were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it would MOST likely be:

A.
borderline.

B.
obsessive-compulsive.

C.
schizoptypal.

D.
narcissistic.

.

2 points

Question 69

A client has enlarged brain ventricles and a measurable loss of gray matter. These symptoms are:

A.
psychoneuroimmunological, and the most likely diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder.

B.
psychoneuroimmunological, and the most likely diagnosis is schizotypal personality disorder.

C.
biological, and the most likely diagnosis is schizotypal personality disorder.

D.
biological, and the most likely diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder.

.

2 points

Question 70

All of the following are concerns about the accuracy of IQ tests to diagnose intellectual developmental disorders EXCEPT:

A.
They do not cause a disadvantage for whom English is a second language.

B.
They are culturally biased.

C.
The tester may be biased.

D.
They have not been adequately tested on those with extremely low intelligence.

.

2 points

Question 71

Pat does not follow what the teacher is doing and has difficulty focusing on the task at hand. His behavior in class is disruptive because he cannot sit still, which leads to poor grades in school. These symptoms MOST likely indicate:

A.
dyslexia with childhood anxiety.

B.
attention-deficit / hyperactivity disorder.

C.
a conduct disorder.

D.
school phobia with acting out.

.

2 points

Question 72

Nations that started “normalization” in the treatment of intellectual developmental disorder include:

A.
Denmark and Sweden.

B.
the former Soviet Union and China.

C.
Japan and Great Britain.

D.
the United States and Canada.

.

2 points

Question 73

Which one of the following people would MOST correctly be diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder?

A.
one with an IQ of 85 but no other significant diffiiculties

B.
one with an IQ of 85 and significant difficulty communicating

C.
one with an IQ of 69 having problems coping with life

D.
one with an IQ of 65 but functioning well in life

.

2 points

Question 74

According to one psychological view of autism, the awareness that other people base their behaviors on their own belief, and not on information they have no way of knowing, is present in children with autism spectrum disorder. This ability is called:

A.
egocentrism.

B.
metacognitive knowledge.

C.
a theory of mind.

D.
social awareness.

.

2 points

Question 75

What does it mean to say that intelligence tests are culturally biased?

A.
They are biased against children who have experienced a great variety of cultures and who are bilingual.

B.
They are biased in favor of those from middle and upper socioeconomic levels who are exposed to the kinds of language and typical experiences that the test evaluates.

C.
They measure abilities that are related to having been in school, disadvantaging home-schooled children.

D.
They measure “street smarts,” so rural children are disadvantaged.

.

2 points

Question 76

Compared to case studies, correlations and experiments:

A.
give us information about what causes abnormal behavior.

B.
can be replicated.

C.
must use control groups who get placebo treatment.

D.
give us more detailed information about a particular individual.

.

2 points

Question 77

One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with their problems in living as:

A.
patients.

B.
clients.

C.
pupils.

D.
trainees.

.

2 points

Question 78

General principles that explain the underlying nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior are called:

A.
nomothetic.

B.
idiographic.

C.
correlational.

D.
theoretical.

.

2 points

Question 79

Which aspect of the definition of abnormality includes the inability to care for oneself and work productively?

A.
dysfunction

B.
distress

C.
danger to self or others

D.
deviance

.

2 points

Question 80

A flash mob is MOST similar to:

A.
melancholia.

B.
trephination.

C.
mass madness.

D.
eco-terrorism.

.

2 points

Question 81

R. D. Laing said, “Insanity—a perfectly rational adjustment to an insane world.” This statement illustrates:

A.
that drug use causes people to become mentally ill.

B.
that abnormality is situational.

C.
that everyone is a little eccentric.

D.
how dangerous most mentally ill people actually are.

.

2 points

Question 82

A researcher\’s expectations about a study can affect its outcome. The type of research design used specifically to address this problem is a(n):

A.
experiment.

B.
blind design.

C.
random-assignment design.

D.
matched control group design.

.

2 points

Question 83

If a court decides that a defendant is mentally unstable, the defendant will:

A.
spend the rest of his or her life in jail.

B.
never be tried.

C.
be committed to a mental hospital for the rest of his or her life.

D.
not be punished in the usual way.

.

2 points

Question 84

The process of forcing certain individuals to undergo mental health treatment is called:

A.
parens patriae.

B.
emergency commitment.

C.
police power.

D.
civil commitment.

.

2 points

Question 85

What is the basis for making a 2 PCs determination to commit on an emergency basis?

A.
The patient must be a child.

B.
The patient must be a danger to himself or herself or others.

C.
The patient must be violent.

D.
The patient must be involved in a criminal proceeding.

.

2 points

Question 86

Which of the following is MOST likely to impact job performance in terms of accidents, damage, and absenteeism?

A.
anxiety disorders

B.
psychotic disorders

C.
depression

D.
substance-related disorders

.

2 points

Question 87

Courts ask for mental health professionals to help determine if defendants are:

A.
responsible for the crimes they commit and capable of defending themselves in court.

B.
telling the truth or covering for someone else who really committed the crime.

C.
able to serve as their own lawyer and educated regarding the law.

D.
in need of medical treatment.

.

2 points

Question 88

Which of the following pairs do NOT belong together in terms of Internet use and potential behavioral disorders?

A.
violent video games and antisocial personality disorder

B.
e-mail use and depression

C.
social media site postings and bullying

D.
constant testing and tweeting, and ADD

.

2 points

Question 89

The “rational path to madness” in schizophrenia is MOST consistent with a:

A.
family systems orientation.

B.
cognitive orientation.

C.
behavioral orientation.

D.
psychoanalytic orientation.

.

2 points

Question 90

Based on family pedigree studies, which relative of an individual with a diagnosis of schizophrenia would be MOST at risk for developing the disorder?

A.
father

B.
grandson

C.
niece

D.
sister

.

2 points

Question 91

Noreen has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is totally unresponsive to her environment. She does not move for hours on end and never responds to contacts from others. This is an example of:

A.
catatonic stupor.

B.
catatonic excitement.

C.
inappropriate affect.

D.
general dysphoria.

.

2 points

Question 92

Theorists propose that institutionalized patients deteriorate because they are deprived of opportunities to develop self-respect and independence. The therapy that counters this effect by creating an environment that encourages self-respect and responsibility is known as:

A.
environmental enhancement.

B.
token therapy.

C.
milieu therapy.

D.
social therapy.

.

2 points

Question 93

An emergency medical technician (EMT) arrives at the scene of a bad car accident, and calmly prepares a severely injured passenger for transport to a hospital, while others at the scene are screaming and crying with fear and grief. The EMT\’s training has resulted in behavior similar to the symptom of schizophrenia called:

A.
poverty of speech.

B.
blunted affect.

C.
flat affect.

D.
anhedonia.

.

2 points

Question 94

The decrease in the fluency and productivity of speech that is seen in schizophrenia is specifically termed:

A.
blocking.

B.
catatonia.

C.
alogia.

D.
avolition.

.

2 points

Question 95

How likely are women to use a gun to commit suicide?

A.
Less than 5 percent of women who commit suicide use guns.

B.
Over two-thirds of women who commit suicide use guns.

C.
About 40 percent of women who commit suicide use guns.

D.
About 20 percent of women who commit suicide use guns.

.

2 points

Question 96

In his definition of suicide, Edwin Shneidman includes all of the following factors EXCEPT that it:

A.
results from depression or emotional distress.

B.
is self-inflicted.

C.
involves direct effort.

D.
involves conscious effort.

.

2 points

Question 97

About what percentage of people who commit suicide use alcohol just prior to the act?

A.
10 percent

B.
20 percent

C.
35 percent

D.
70 percent

.

2 points

Question 98

About how many suicides are committed annually in the United States?

A.
15,000

B.
700,000

C.
36,000

D.
120,000

.

2 points

Question 99

If a student at your school commits suicide, the staff might offer counseling sessions for the other students. If so, the staff is engaging in:

A.
postvention.

B.
destigmatization.

C.
substance abuse prevention.

D.
psychodynamic therapy.

.

2 points

Question 100

Who of the following is MOST at risk for suicide?

A.
one without a diagnosable mental disorder

B.
one who is schizophrenic and developmentally disabled

C.
one who is depressed and dependent on alcohol

D.
one with a panic or other anxiety disorder

.

2 points

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SAMPLE SOLUTION

Abnormal Psychology Assignment

Question 1 
D. Watch TV, read, or listen to music
Question 2 
D. coronary heart disease
Question 3 
A. psychophysical disorder.
Question 4
C. Exercise
Question 5 
C. Briquet’s syndrome
Question 6 
D. childhood and adolescence.
Question 7 
C. a dominant-culture assessor
Question 8 
B. not used in the DSM-5 but used in previous forms of the DSM.
Question 9  A. intelligence tests
Question 10
A….